What language would Jesus have used if he did not want to be overheard?


#1

Matthew 16:20 (King James Version)

Then charged he his disciples that they should tell no man that he was Jesus the Christ.

I am told by Catholic brothern that Jesus would be using Aramaic in this text because he did not want to be overheard. But, from Acts 21-22 we learn that

Jews and Romans both knew Aramaic.

Romans understood Greek, and some Jews understood it too.

Only Jews understood Hebrew.

So, who in Matthew 16 would be within hearing distance?

Aramaic would be ruled out if either Jews or Romans are within hearing distance.

Greek is ruled out if Romans are within hearing distance.

Hebrew is ruled out if Jews can overhear.

Logically, Jesus and the apostles had to be out of hearing distance of both the Jews and Romans, but is this the case?

We know that Matthew 16 occurred in the “coasts of Caesarea Philippi”. So, who would be in that area? And, how do we know?


#2

THE NARRATIVE ROLE OF SEMITIC LANGUAGES IN THE BOOK OF ACTS JOHN C. POIRIER Filología Neotestamentaria - Vol. XVI - 2003, pp. 107-116

bsw.org/?l=72161&a=Art08pdf.html

This above is the article on Acts 21-22


#3

:confused: :confused:
Never heard of such a thing. Think he/they were pulling your leg.

Nita


#4

same here.


#5

Hi Daniel,

I don’t quite understand what you’re getting at, but here is the language situation in Palestine at the time of Jesus :

Aramaic was the common language of the Jews.

Hebrew was no longer in use since the return from the Babylonian captivity in 538 BC. It was comparable to what Latin is for us today : spoken by an elite, used in the Bible and in liturgical services.

Greek was the common language around the Mediterrainean sea, including Palestine. It was the language the Romans used with the conquered peoples, including Palestine. Commentators of the Bible tell us that Galilee was largely bilingual (Aramaic/Greek), so that both Jesus and his disciples probably could get along in Greek.

Latin was the language of the Roman administration, but rarely used for regular communications outside of Italy, Gaul, Spain and North Africa.

Verbum


#6

Well now, it seems to me that Jesus would have had 2 options left to choose from. He either spoke Polish in this passage, or he lowered his voice. :rolleyes:


#7

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