Matthew 16:20 (King James Version)
Then charged he his disciples that they should tell no man that he was Jesus the Christ.
I am told by Catholic brothern that Jesus would be using Aramaic in this text because he did not want to be overheard. But, from Acts 21-22 we learn that
Jews and Romans both knew Aramaic.
Romans understood Greek, and some Jews understood it too.
Only Jews understood Hebrew.
So, who in Matthew 16 would be within hearing distance?
Aramaic would be ruled out if either Jews or Romans are within hearing distance.
Greek is ruled out if Romans are within hearing distance.
Hebrew is ruled out if Jews can overhear.
Logically, Jesus and the apostles had to be out of hearing distance of both the Jews and Romans, but is this the case?
We know that Matthew 16 occurred in the “coasts of Caesarea Philippi”. So, who would be in that area? And, how do we know?