Greeting! I would be very grateful for help in resolvong s problem I have. I have read that the psalms quoted in the New Testamemnt are mainly (85%) from the Greek OT, Septuagint (LXX), and not from the Hebrew Bible. Is this so?
If it is so then when Jesus quotes from the Psalms did he use the Septuagint Greek Bible, or did the evangelists use the Greek OT Bible when quoting Psalms, even though Jesus used the Hebrew Psalms. If so, why? Was it because the NT was written possibly more than 40 years after the time of Jesus and after the fall of Jeruslame when many Jews lived outside Palestine in the Diaspora, and hence actual and potential Christians did not use the Hebrew Bible, but the LXX?