Whats so great about the King James Bible?


I dont want to derail the tread on the KJV VS The Catholic Bible. But all im geting of that thread is are the 7 old testament books valid or not and the whole Trent thing. I just want to know why the King James or why not without going all into the whole Trent deal.

So can Protestants tell me why Catholic should use The KJV. And from the Catholics why we shouldnt have anything to do with KJV.


See this article by Jimmy Akin from This Rock for help in choosing a Bible translation.

This article, also by Jimmy Akin, from This Rock, explains KJV-onlyism and DR-onlyism a bit more.


Most Protestants I know would say the KJV is translated from what they would say are more accurate Greek an Hebrew sources than other translations. The “textus receptus” or received texts. Most are taught that translations based from the Latin vulgate are not as true to the original sources, and of course are “Catholic”. No serious study is ever done by the average person in the pew, so I guess I would say they are loyal to the KJV out of tradition.

It took me a long while to overcome prejudices from my own Protestant tradition to realize the KJV is not the only game in town.

Score another one for the CC. :thumbsup:



Why do you narrow your search to bible alone?


Why not ask the hard questions.

Like who is reading it right?


It uses words like ‘Though shalt’ , ‘Thou’ , and ‘Thus saith the Lord’ and doesnt that sound Biblical to you.


I’m Serbian Orthodox, but I use the KJV when I read in English. I just love the style. :slight_smile:


The Douay also uses that same style. I would also ask anyone who is a KJV only. Who was King James and what authority did he have to translate a Bible? How was he related to the Church?
Most if not all you ask don’t know the answers, and I might add don’t want to know.


James VI and I (19 June 1566 – 27 March 1625) was King of Scots as James VI, and King of England and King of Ireland as James I.

and what authority did he have to translate a Bible? How was he related to the Church?

He didn’t translate the KV Bible. He commished a group of scholars to do so from the original Hebrew and Greek. The purpose? To provide the Bible by The Church of England, for the Church of England.


So why today does a Baptist insist on using a Bible produced on the authority of a secular king, by the Church of England, for the Church of England?


Adherants believe that the version is the “most authentic” translation - taken directly from the original Greek and Hebrew text - and not from the Latin Vulgate (where St. Jerome translated the original Greek and Hebrew texts into Latin).

I’m sure that part of this is Anti-Catholic hubris.


King James did NOT translate the Bible. Get a GRIP!

The head of the project was Lancelot Andrews.

Saying King James translated the Bible is like saying Constantine was the Pope. :rolleyes:

His “authority” was to unify the practice of the Church in his realm, since he was “head” of the Church of England.

As for the claim that the manuscripts from which it was translated are “more accurate” than others, that might have been true in 1611 – because at least they went to the Hebrew and Greek. But since then, even the KJV has undergone many revisions based on the vast manuscript evidence that has emerged in the past 150 years.

The Douay-Rheims was translated from the Vulgate. So it was a third-generation translation. When Challoner revised it in the 1790s, he consulted the KJV heavily.


Because when the Baptist church got started, it was the best game in town?

I wouldn’t mount the “seculsr King” argument or even the C of E argument because the KJV was still a great Bible in its day. Nowadays, most Baptists I know use the NIV.


I didn’t comment on what the typical Baptist Church sanctioned/used … When I was in the fold, it was KJV far and wide, but since I’ve not set foot in a Baptist Church in … oh, 20 years, I didn’t want to comment.

I like the NIV … a lot.


I still say that 99 out of 100 Protestants cannot answer as you guys did thoise questions. It dose not matter for practical purposes if I ask them, what authority King James had to translate the Bible or if I ask what authority King James had to have the Bible translated. The only authority boils down to simple self-apointed authority as head of the Church of England.


Why should that be a problem in the circumstances? Constantine called the Council of Nicea. Good thing he did, too. And he wasn’t even baptized!

For the head of the Church of England, at the prompting of scholars, theologians, and church leadership, to support a major project bringing the best available resources to bear on the truly great goal of creating a strong and accurate translation of Scripture “out of the original tongues”, seems like a darn good idea.


Two nights ago we had a Protestant caller who was watching The One True Faith in the Detroit area. He absolutely believed that King James wrote the real and original Bible. Any attempts to try to explain history to him was totally fruitless. There are people out there who are going to believe what they want to believe and, in spite of being presented with common sense, historical facts, and truth, still think they are right.

Whachagonnado with some folk’s kids? :shrug:



You can lead a horse to water . . . :shrug:


That is absolutely unbelievable! A lot of people don’t want to be confused by the facts.


Modern Catholic translations are translated directly from the Hebrew and Greek, not the Latin Vulgate. They, as well as the modern Protestant translations, use older and more accurate Hebrew and Greek texts than the KJV (which uses the Textus Receptus).


I would like to know why the Church of England broke off?

And to me using The Church of Englands bible would be stupid for a Catholic anyway. That would be like a baptist using whatever Church broke off from them.

But atleast King James did not go out and make a whole new bible out like the JWs and Mormons.

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