The topic question, I admit, is a bit quirky. So please let me explain.
In my thinking and review recently, I honestly have this question regarding Scripture and history.
There have been a couple threads regarding the authors of the Gospels writing that Jesus said that Moses wrote this and that in the Torah. And the debate is whether or not Moses actually wrote it.
If Moses didn’t write it, then Christ was apparently not meaning to define a historical truth. He was speaking to the lack of faith of his audience.
And then there is the more general discussion regarding whether or not Scripture is accurate in all the historical statements.
I realize that is a big topic and I’d like to think I fully grasp all of the Church’s wisdom on this topic, but it’s possible that I’ve missed a minor nuance…:shrug:
To me it seems some people try to address the topic in a similar way as when the Pope speaks “ex cathedra” as Vatican I defined.
Pope - Faith & Morals for the whole Church
Scripture - Truths regarding salvation for mankind
Am I wrong in thinking that the “extent” of truth in the Bible is greater than the limits regarding the Pope’s extent of Infallibility? Or is that just my Protestant upbringing holding me back?