In the book of Jeremiah, it gives the prophecy of the new covenant:
Behold the days shall come, saith our Lord: and I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Juda: not according to the covenant, which I made with their fathers in the day that I took their hand, to bring them out of the Land of Ægypt: the covenant which they made void, and I had the dominion of them, saith our Lord. But this shall be the covenant, that I will make with the house of Israel: after those days saith our Lord: I will give my law in their bowels, and in their heart I will write it: and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.
Paul reminds again in his Epistle to the Hebrews:
For if that former had been void of fault, there should not certainly a place of a second been sought. For blaming them, he saith: Behold the days shall come, saith our Lord: and I will
consummate upon the house of Israel, and upon the house of Juda a new Testament: Not according to the testament which I made to their fathers in the day that I took their hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt. because they did not continue in my testament: and I neglected them, saith our Lord. For this is the testament which I will dispose to the house of Israel after those days, saith our Lord: Giving my laws into their mind, and in their heart will I superscribe them: and I will be their God, and they shall be my people:
Now, when Paul reminds again of the prophecy, the wording is different but it means the same thing. What I want to know is did Paul render it differently, or is it just my bible (Douay-Rheims) giving it a different rendering?