“Whereupon Jeremias stretched forth his right hand, and gave to Judas a sword of gold, saying: Take this holy sword a gift from God, wherewith thou shalt overthrow the adversaries of my people Israel.” 2 Machabee 15: 15 - 16
What happened to the sword Jeremias gave Judas Machabee? Any legends or historical comments about?:knight2:
11 [Judas] armed each of them not so much with confidence in shields and spears as with the inspiration of brave words, and he cheered them all by relating** a dream, a sort of vision, *** which was worthy of belief. 12 What he saw was this: Onias, who had been high priest, a noble and good man, of modest bearing and gentle manner, one who spoke fittingly and had been trained from childhood in all that belongs to excellence, was praying with outstretched hands for the whole body of the Jews. 13 Then likewise a man appeared, distinguished by his gray hair and dignity, and of marvelous majesty and authority. 14 And Onias spoke, saying, “This is a man who loves the brethren and prays much for the people and the holy city, Jeremiah, the prophet of God.” 15 Jeremiah stretched out his right hand and gave to Judas a golden sword, and as he gave it he addressed him thus: 16 “Take this holy sword, a gift from God, with which you will strike down your adversaries.”
As Judas received this sword in a dream or vision, we can surmise that he was not given an actual golden sword (such a sword would be useless in battle anyway, since gold is one of the softest metals). It is also worth noting that after Judas awakes from this dream, the golden sword is not mentioned, even in the battle that takes place right afterward. This is a further indication that the sword in the vision had symbolic significance, and was not an actual sword.
captainrick Wasn’t he JUDAH Maccabee, or is that an alternate spelling?
There are various accepted renderings of his name. The most common anglicized version used today is Judas Maccabeus.
To be pedantic, if we go by the Greek, he would be Ioudas (ho) Makkabaios - Judas Machabaeus (or Maccabaeus) is the Latin form. (The ultimate Hebrew form would of course be Y(eh)udah Maqabi.) ‘Judas’ and ‘Judah’ are just the same name - both are derived from the name Y(eh)udah.
One ‘traditional’ English form is Judas Maccab(a)eus; that was the form of the name used in the KJV (in its Apocrypha section, yes*) and by Handel in his oratorio about him. Both Wyclif, the Douai-Rheims, and the Challoner revision of the Douai-Rheims, while they call the books Machabeis/Machabees, also call the person Judas Machabeus. (‘Maccabee’ is an Anglicized form - kind of like pharisee for pharisaios/pharisaeus.) I think ‘Judah Maccabee’ is a more modern attempt to harmonize the transliteration of his name with the more Hebrew renderings found in other OT books.
So basically, the books are titled ‘Maccabees’ but within the books, the translation keeps referring to ‘Judas Maccabeus’.