Starting a new thread, spinning off the Catholic But Not Roman Catholic thread…
JasonTE in that thread made the following claim:
“…let me say again that the sinlessness of Mary was widely denied. There are references to Jesus being the only sinless human or to Mary being sinful at or after conception in Justin Martyr, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, Origen, Basil, Jerome, Ephraim, Ambrose, Hilary of Poitiers, John Chrysostom, Cyril of Jerusalem, Cyril of Alexandria, Gregory Nazianzen, Augustine, etc. At least several Roman bishops denied that Mary was sinless.”
I would like to examine this, maybe a Father and/or Roman bishop at a time. I am more interested in the claim of “Mary being sinful” in the Fathers (that is, committing actual sin). I want to know how “widely” this was held in the early Church (defined as the Church up to say Pope Gregory the Great, up to 600 AD).
A statement of a Father that Jesus was sinless would be an argument from silence. I am more interested in the positive assertion that the Blessed Mother committed actual sin, and which of the Fathers affirmed that.
Right now, before checking this out, I have the understanding that Tertullian in the west, and some of the eastern Fathers had questions about or doubted Mary’s sinlessness (especially John Chrysostom), but after the 4th century the sinlessness of Mary was pretty well settled in the west and east. The Immaculate Conception itself took longer to be settled.
Looking up my photocopy of Mariology edited by Carol…