On the site NewAdvent.org the article for infalibility says:
“It is only in connection with doctrinal authority as such that, practically speaking, this question of infallibility arises; that is to say, when we speak of the Church’s infallibility we mean, at least primarily and principally, what is sometimes called active as distinguished from passive infallibility. We mean in other words that the Church is infallible in her objective definitive teaching regarding faith and morals, not that believers are infallible in their subjective interpretation of her teaching. This is obvious in the case of individuals, any one of whom may err in his understanding of the Church’s teaching; nor is the general or even unanimous consent of the faithful in believing a distinct and independent organ of infallibility.”
My question is who is the church? This passage is distinguishing between individuals and the church. Now I understand that first of all the word church is never used in scripture. The correct word would be ekklesia. So I guess the correct question here would be, who is the ekklesia? According to scripture the word ekklesia is a designation for:
a) a collective gathering of saints. 1 cor. 16:19
b) a reference to believers in general without a regard for any meeting. eph. 3:10
How can you say that the church cannot err, but the individual can if the individual is the church? And how can you distinguish between the individual and the church?