In 1 Timothy 3:2, Paul states that a Bishop may (should) have a wife, providing it’s a morally upright, monogamist marriage. Later in Chapter 4, verses 2 and 3, he state that evil influences cause marriage to be forbidden. Also in verse 3 is found an admonition against abstaining from meat. So why do we abstain from meat during Lenten Fridays? If scripture trumps magisterial teaching and scripture says that ‘nothing is to be refused , if it received with Thanksgiving’ 1 Timothy 4:4.
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*]Was Peter married?
*]What is the history of celibacy for Catholic priests?
*]Is priestly celibacy linked to inheritance?
*]Celibacy and the Priesthood
*]Our traditions are not man made, right?