I noticed in one of the previous “ask an apologist” questions, somebody asked if Jesus drank wine. Jan Wakelin, one of your apologists responded that he did drink wine because at the Last Supper Jesus said,
“I tell you I shall not drink again of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom."
The explanation was that the word again infers that Jesus did at some time drink wine.
Earlier in the Matthew 1:24-25 the Biblical writer writes,
“When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife. But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus”
Using the logic that the apologist used, couldn’t you say that the word until infers that Mary didn’t remain a virgin her entire life? If not, this seems like a double standard. One shouldn’t be so pedantic about trivial matters. If Jesus did or didn’t drink wine it would in no way affect his divinity. The same is true if Mary didn’t remain a virgin her entire life.