I am really sick to death of this question.
Namely, because I have been searching and searching and searching…but no matter how many questions I ask, websites I look at, vicars I talk to…do I understand what authoritive source the (wonderful) idea of unimaginable, immeasurable bliss comes from. It’s not in the Bible. Yes, the Bible mentions joy. Often. But who says it isn’t qualitively the same in Heaven as here? Yes, there is no pain and many (good) negations. That equals a place without badness but not a place of the kind of joy that makes Earth’s joy seem a meager shadow in comparrisson.
And as to the whole, “Ear hath not heard nor eye seen…” thing, it’s followed by ‘but God hath revealed it to us…’ so that’s not proof of the notion either.
If only the Bible said, “Heaven is so joyous and satisfactory that any joy in the World pales next to its happiness.”
I love reading CS Lewis and have just brought a book by Ted Dekker, which also says things I love and sympathise with. I adore the notion that Earthly goods (films, books, food, lovers…) are all hints of the greatness to come. But where is the proof of that (where does that idea come from?- Yes, I know, Plato: In Christianity,I mean. AND like I said, the whole ‘joy beyond joy’ thing…AAAAAAAAAAARGH! SO FRUSTRATED! FOUR YEARS (or more) OF THIS!!! Beginning to envy the old atheist me- I may have resigned myself to a sad fate of oblivion- but at least I WAS resigned to it and not this careworn with desire!:mad: