Why does Jesus say, "I am going to my God?"


#1

In John 20:17, Jesus says that he is going "to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God".
usccb.org/bible/john/20

Jesus is God, so why does he say he is going to his God?


#2

Because, as we were taught:

  1. For there is one person of the Father, another of the Son, and another of the Holy Spirit.

  2. But the Godhead of the Father, of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit is all one, the glory equal, the majesty coeternal.

  3. Such as the Father is, such is the Son, and such is the Holy Spirit.

The Son is not the Father, so the Son can indeed say he is going to his God.


#3

From the Catena Aurea:

HILARY. . . . though He remained in the form of God, He took upon Him the form of a servant; and Christ says this in the form of a servant to men. And we cannot doubt that in so far as He is man, the Father is His Father in the same sense in which He is of other men, and God His God in like manner. . . . AUG. He does not say, Our Father, but, My Father and your Father: Mine therefore and yours in a different sense; Mine by nature, yours by grace. Nor does He say, Our God, but My God - under Him I am man - and your God; between you and Him I am Mediator.


#4

I always took this to mean his prediction of his rising and ascending to the right hand of his Father.


#5

It is, but as the OP stated, he doesn’t know how Jesus could be going to his God if he is also God.

The simple answer is that Jesus and the Father are not the same Person although they are both God.


#6

This illustrates why some/many folks can't accept Trinitarian Christianity. I understand what you are saying, but others can't. It is not an easy concept to grasp. Hence, if people wnat to accept Jesus as Saviour but not buy into His divinity (at least at this stage of their faith journey), I have no problem with it.


#7

Right on.


#8

It is also good to be mindful that in the New Testament there is a loose distinction made between the term “God” which is applied mostly to God the Father and the term “Lord” which is applied mostly to Jesus Christ, Son of God, God the Son. That of course nowise means that Jesus Christ is not God. The terms are interchangeable.

“To [the Israelites] belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever” (Rom 9:5).

That is not to say either that the term Lord is itself anything less than a declaration of Christ’s divinity. Same with the term “Son of God” as John points out.

“Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God” (John 5:18).


#9

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