“I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery.” Now Jesus does state that divorce was allowed, due to our “hardness of heart” and that it was not always this way from the beginning, but this passage clearly seems to suggest that the permission is there. Why then does the church not recognize it?
I just answered this one yesterday (June 12) for FrAllen. The passage is referring not to adultery, but to illicit or unnatural relations. Check the answer out.
Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.