Before anyone jumps on me, let me say I accept the Church’s teaching on intercourse but I don’t claim to fully understand it and here is why.
If the marital embrace must be fully unitive and fully open to the possibility of life, why does the Church allow a man and woman to marry (and have licit intercourse) even when the woman has had her uterus, tubes and ovaries removed prior to the marriage? There is no possibility of pregnancy in this case short of another “miraculous” birth. The act of intercourse in this case would never be anything but unitive and would therefore, it seems to me, never meet the Church’s criteria for licit intercourse. And for sake of argument this couple does not intend to adopt.
I’m hoping someone can explain to me why this would be a valid marriage taking the scenario into account. Thanks.