[quote=Pistor]It’s agreed then, and I’m not dreaming it, the Holy Father is speeking in the plural. I recall reading Ordinatio Sacerdotalis several years back in Latin and John Paul II was clearly speeking in the plural there too…What I wonder though, is why the “we” in a deeper theological context? Is he speeking for himself and God, or is he speeking in union with Peter perhaps? Ergo, if either of these premises are true then is the translator doing us a dis-service?
You know you are right. JPII did use the royal We in Ordinatio Sacerdotalis as well. I was basing my statement that JPII didn’t use the royal We based on a casual conversation I once had with someone – maybe my conversation partner was just mistaken or maybe JPII used the royal We only on a rare occasion like in Ordinatio Sacerdotalis.
I don’t know what the deeper theological meaning would be. It may just be rooted in custom. I would think it would be allusory to the authority of St Peter and Paul, but I’m not sure given the separate references to it sometimes in papal texts. For instance, in Ineffablis Deus, it says: ""By the authority of Our Lord Jesus Christ and of the Blessed Apostles Peter and Paul, and by Our own authority, We declare, pronounce and define the doctrine …"
It may perhaps be an allusion to the Pope as the Bishop of the holy Roman Church (i.e. the Diocese of Rome), speaking on behalf of that Church which according to Church Fathers presides in love over other Churches (i.e. other Dioceses).