Why is it necessary for Mary to be sinless after Christ's birth?


I got this question yesterday from a Protestant who’s inching towards Catholicism, with the major obstacles being Mary’s sinlessness and the authority of the Church. (He’s ok with her Assumption, calling her Mother of God, and could accept that she was sinless before Christ’ birth in order not to pass on original sin to Him).

His argument is that if we say Mary was sinless, we make her too much like God. Sure, Mary could have been sinless before Jesus was born, but how could it be possible for her to be sinless after? Why would it even have been necessary? He thinks her being sinless would make it unnecesary for Christ to be sinless.

I told him I’d get back to him. Help, please!

:heart: Love is Patient


The Church doesn’t claim that it was necessary for Mary to be sinless after the birth of Christ, only that she was in fact sinless. Exactly as God intended for Adam, Eve and all their offspring.

As to sinless creatures being too much like God, I guess that means that the 2/3 of the angels who did not rebel are also too much like God. That’s a lot more to be concerned about than one human being! :smiley:


Was Elijah sinless? or is it simply and Eze 18 situation?


If Mary was sinless before Christ’s birth, by God’s grace of course, she was firmly in the habit of always doing God’s will. Then Jesus was actually living with her for the next 30+ years. Why would she even want to break this relationship with God, which is what sin is. God, himself, was her ‘spiritual director’.

From our point of view it wasn’t necessary but God apparently has a different point of view.


Good point about the angels. :thumbsup: Thanks!


Thank you. :thumbsup:


I agree with Mike, God created Adam and Eve without sin, were they too much like God? Doesn’t seem so, they sinned. Being without sin does not make you God. God wants all of us to be without sin.


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