I got this question yesterday from a Protestant who’s inching towards Catholicism, with the major obstacles being Mary’s sinlessness and the authority of the Church. (He’s ok with her Assumption, calling her Mother of God, and could accept that she was sinless before Christ’ birth in order not to pass on original sin to Him).
His argument is that if we say Mary was sinless, we make her too much like God. Sure, Mary could have been sinless before Jesus was born, but how could it be possible for her to be sinless after? Why would it even have been necessary? He thinks her being sinless would make it unnecesary for Christ to be sinless.
I told him I’d get back to him. Help, please!
Love is Patient