Why is the Blessed Virgin Mary pure?

Why is the Blessed Virgin Mary pure, even though Jesus was inside her womb? Is she pure in heart? Does she always have pure, clean thoughts (that is, never think bad thoughts or do bad things)? Is she pure because she was conceived by her mother without original sin? What is the basis of her purity? Is her purity tied to her virginity, or is it tied to the notion that she must be born without original sin? Even if she is born without original sin, she can just sin against God in her earthly life, but because of her obedience to God despite under suffering from the people of her society who probably thought she slept with someone outside of marriage, she is considered to be pure, because she faithfully obeys God?

Mary is pure because 1) She was conceived pure in her mothers womb without the stain of Original Sin and 2) She committed no personal sin during her life.

The reason Mary was pure was to be a perfect, pure vessel for Christ.

I’d say, all of the above.

If only more women and girls looked onto Mary as a role model, with her perfect, shining beauty, instead of the cover of “Sexpolitan,” as I believe I will start calling it.

I ask my confessor this question during my confession. I wanted to purify myself so I asked him what prayers I could say and what did the Blessed Virgin Mary do in her life that connected with so closely with God Almighty.

My confessor told me that it is extremely difficult for me (or any other woman) to become as pure as the Blessed Virgin Mary, it is almost impossible.
He told me the Blessed Virgin Mary was pure only because God made her that way,
because she was predestined in His divine plan to be the Mother of Our Savior Jesus Christ.

Like the Angel Gabriel told Mary at the Annunciation, when Mary said “Yes” to being the Mother of God. When she was in a deep sleep at night the Holy Spirit would over shadow her and plant the sperm into her egg and she would conceive a child and she would bear a son and she was to name Him Jesus.

Mary conceived a son “without sin” meaning she conceived a son without having sexual relations with a human man. And the Blessed Virgin Mary gave birth to Jesus by pushing and the Holy Spirit guided Joseph on delivering the Christ child being born through Mary’s birth canal. Mary lived her whole life on earth without falling for any of the devils temptations. She is truly a great role model for all women.

I hope I said all that correctly.

^This, so much this. :thumbsup:

Why is Mary pure?

Because God in the fullness of time that is the Eternal God who stands outside of time and who created us all saw in Mary the one person (unlike Adam and Eve) who would love Him in complete purity, and not fall in His grace. God consecrated Himself to her in a way that was marvelous. A gift that no creature had ever been given or will ever be given again. God made Adam out of clay and breathed life into him, and from his side created Eve. God though found Mary worthy enough for himself to be joined with her in the most intimate way. And even though Jesus came to give us life, He allowed Mary to give him life, and even though Jesus came to feed us, He allowed Mary to feed Him by her own body as scripture records the lady caught up in the Holy Spirit exclaimed, “Blessed is woman whose breast bore Jesus milk”.

It is God and God alone who in His actions reveals to us just how pure and Holy Mary is. We may all receive God’s grace, but Mary is and always was the true handmaiden of the Lord.

Mary is pure because she is Full of Grace, which is a description and a title. This was declared by an angel in Luke 1:28. Notice the angel does not say “POOF!” You are now full of grace. He says, “Hail Mary, Full of Grace…” So when did that start? When she was conceived.

“Highly favoured” (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians. 1:6, . . . The Vulgate “gratiae plena” is right, if it means ‘full of grace which thou hast received’; wrong, if it means ‘full of grace which thou hast to bestow’"
Baptist Greek scholar A.T. Robertson

The Catechism of Trent understands Mary’s virginity thusly:

“But as the Conception itself transcends the order of nature, so also the birth of our Lord presents to our contemplation **nothing **but what is divine. Besides, what is admirable beyond the power of thoughts or words to express, He is born of His Mother without any diminution of her maternal virginity, **just as **He afterwards went forth from the sepulchre while it was closed and sealed, and entered the room in which His disciples were assembled, the doors being shut; or, not to depart from every*day examples, just as the rays of the sun penetrate without breaking or injuring in the least the solid substance of glass, so after a like but more exalted manner did Jesus Christ come forth from His mother’s womb without injury to her maternal virginity. This immaculate and perpetual virginity forms, therefore, the just theme of our eulogy.”

The new Catechism speaks of this old teaching: “The deepening of faith in the virginal motherhood led the Church to confess Mary’s real and perpetual virginity **even in the act **of giving birth to the Son of God made man.” 499

Pope Paul IV’s “Cum quorundam” (7 August, 1555) maybe have spoken on this. I can’t find it though. I was wondering if anyone had a copy of it

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