In what language do you usually communicate with other persons?
Let’s put it this way. I carry a translator with me.
ok, but computer language is not something you would use to talk to your friend, right? Cobol or whatever has a specific purpose for a specific audience.
Language of any kind is like that. It’s simply charitable to speak with others in a way that facilitates communication.
Language should also contribute to common sense, which is pretty much self descriptive.
I love Latin, to sing it and hear it. But it is what it is, and nothing more. And that should be enough.
When you work in IT you do.
You have to be able to read code.
If you are using COBOL, you will need a translator for your translator
You mean like debugging tools?
That’s another language.
BTW do they still use COBOL these days? I know java is pretty cool.
The programmers who work for me mostly use ASP.net, but I’m not a programmer (or rather I used to be a really bad programmer). Some java, C++ and C# also.
What about Anglo-Saxon? Surely that is the precursor to modern English.
Sorry, I don’t know what ICEL is.
Middle English, the language of Chaucer was modern English’s predecessor. Shakespeare and the KJV bible are really the beginning of modern English.
The reason Latin is so effective in excorsims is becuase the use of Latin promotes unity, and the devil does not like unity.
You’re right; I should have avoided the word modern. What I meant was, shouldn’t whatever came before what we call ‘English’ be Anglo-Saxon - the language that Beowulf was written (or performed) in?
International Commission of English in the Liturgy or something like that.
Really? I never thought of that. When I prayed over a demonically oppressed coworker ( The priest she consulted afterwards said everything I did was right ) I said the Fatima Prayer, the Hail Mary and the short Prayer to Saint Michael in Latin.
The English parts was asking Jesus to make the demon go away with His Precious Blood.
I think there was a language now referred to as “Old Saxon”. It was very closely related to Old Frisian. Both were very closely related to what we refer to as “Old English”, and it’s possible that Old English derived from Old Frisian because there is still a dialect in what is now the Netherlands called “Frisian” which is supposedly the closest language or dialect to English on earth.
But I’m no linguist or historian, either one, so I could be mistaken.
Beowulf was, I believed, originally in Old English, not Old Saxon. But again, supposedly they were closely related. If there was ever a language properly called “Anglo-Saxon” I’m unaware of it. I think those names are closely associated in reference simply because they were closely related in time, place and possible tribal kinship.
FTR, for the rrecord everyone, English is a low German language. Or is close to Low German, see article. So, it appears to be a complex answer. I’d not forget that English (and most of the other royalty in the day) was German or appears to be related to the Germans. It really is a matter of research.
Sometimes, I can listen to something in German, say “Silent Night” or the “Our Father” and so on. It can sound similar to English but I can not quite understand it.
And I took some in High School. A bit of a difficult language to me.
Apparently, Low Saxon is used as well as a term.
Tomarin is correct imho. Maybe we can ask a German teacher… and still, that doesn’t mean what they say is so but that’s what our German teacher told us.
Isn’t it equally possible that he may not have spoken “any language necessary” and that his divine nature is what allowed Him and another individual to understand one another even if they spoke different languages?
This sure takes me back. A million years ago when I was in college, I took a course in Chaucer. The professor really was good, but he insisted that we never quote from the text in modern English in papers or exams. But Middle English really isn’t all that far from modern English once you get used to it.
Back to Latin, someone told me recently, that the Latin we read and pray in was… a more formal version of Latin, then, if you spoke to the people in the Roman Empire, they spoke a more “common form” of Latin. This may have been touched on the thread already, I think.
Latin was the language of the Church at the time that St. Jerome translated the Bible into the Vulgate - the common language translation. Many writings of the doctors of the Church are in Latin because it remained a common language as the Church spread throughout the world. The language isn’t archaic, but it has fallen into disuse outside of a narrowing circle of practitioners. Its continued use isn’t because the Church is stuck in the past, but because the Church is much more than a passing fad.