I would like to have a more convincing answer to this question. Here is the link:
The analogy given to answer the question does not make the reasons for innocent suffering clear to me. There are some major differences between the analogy and the real world situation. Consequently, the analogy seems to be properly resolved in the end, but the real world situation still remains puzzling.
In the analogy, God is represented and/or replaced by a human benefactor who has two heirs, a grandfather and his grandson. All we really know about the benefactor is that he died, leaving his finite wealth behind. There may not have been anything the he could have done better in his life to make things better for his heirs. Naturally, he can not be blamed for their condition.
God is a much different being, he is immortal, omniscient and omnipotent. He can always help everyone.
Yet the fact remains that he allows innocent people to suffer. Could anyone please give me some ideas about why this is the case?