In his discussion on head-covering, Paul tells us that women’s (presumably long) hair is given to her for a covering.
So, then, why shouldn’t all Christian women be required to have their hair long? Why doesn’t the Catholic Church (apparently) require this?
Also, why, if woman already has a covering in her hair, was she, at least early on, required to have a veil as well? Indeed, why did this practice largely cease in recent times and why does the Church no longer require head-covering in church on the whole?
Also, should not women be required to cover at all times, not just while praying? If not, why were they befroe at least required to wear a covering while praying?
If Paul says that long hair was given by God as a covering for women, shouldn’t both the practices of keeping long hair and of taking the veil be universal, both in time and space?
When Paul says that hair was given to woman by God as a covering, he seems to be saying this with authority as a teleological argument about the naturalness of long hair to women (and not to men). He seems to make the claim that it is God’s design for women to have long hair and, indeed, for men to have short hair. He seems to apply this timelessly and universally. Yet, where does this statement come from? Was it directly inspired by God as infallible teaching? Did it come from some traditional understanding of which we are presently unaware? It seems not necessarily to be a teaching on faith and morals per se, but one about the reasons for the origins of the naturalness of long hair for women and short hair for men. So, then, must we consider this teaching infallible, since it is not on faith an orals proper? (When I say “this teaching”, again, I mean the one that dictates the origins of the anturalness of long hair fro women and short hair for men.) Also, this teaching occurs in an inspired text, so are we safe, even if we wanted to, saying that it is not on faith and morals, to dismiss it outright as some cultural/traditional teaching that may not necessarily be correct? (Indeed, what about Africal women, many of whom cannot grow their hair long?) However, it would seem that we cannot say that Paul’s teaching here simply applied to his culture as he seems to make it universal. He seems to say that all women were given that their hair should be long as a covering.
Finally, can anyone direct me to some good online Catholic commentaries on the passage in question?
I realize that there are a lot of questions in the above paragraphys, so feel free to answer any or all of them in your replies.