I was reading a book on the Didache which states that
we know that these words (this is my body…this is my blood) only entered into the (Eucharistic) Prayer…in the fourth century.
So my question is this: If this is true and the words of consecration were added in the fourth century and had not been used before in the practice of the Eucharist, would this pose a problem for Catholicism as a religion and possibly discredit it?
Second question: Does anyone have any proof or counter evidence that would shoot this claim down (which is quoted above)? All you need is one reference to words of consecration being used by the church in the practice of the Eucharist before the fourth century.
(An interesting side note is that the Assyrian Church of the East doesn’t use words of consecration in their Eucharistic practice but I could be wrong.)
I’m not trying to go out of my way to doubt my faith. I find this objection to be very powerful if it’s legit, and I hope someone can quickly shoot it down.