Would it be ethical for God actively (or at least passively, but with assent) to bless someone with something with which that person would later sin? For instance, could God theoretically bless someone with material wealth even though He knew that they would later be greedy with it in some way?
Would His blessing them be so that they might experience His Goodness through, say, that material wealth, even though they might later do ill with it? Could this justify God either actively or passively with assent still going ahead and blessing a person with material wealth? Do you think that God does sometimes, or, in fct, very often, do this or things related to it?
Or, rather, would God doing such be in some way contributing directly enough to a person’s sin? I mean, if God already knew that a person would do ill with material blessings, would He not be contributing to a person’s sin by actively or passively with positive assent providing them? Or, rather, would the contribution to their sin be indirect enough so as to allow ethically for God actively or passively with assent to bless a person with material wealth even though He knew that they would ultimately do sinful things with it? Would the material good that the person would accrue be sufficient reason for God to do this even though there would also be bad coming out of it?
Or, rather, does God simply passively allow (but without positive assent) for some who become wealthy to become wealthy, even though He does not actively assent to or support it? However, isn’t there some theological opinion out there that God, even when passively allowing for something, still at all times must in some way positively actively assent to it for whatever reasons(s)?
Still, even if the above is the case, could one ethically argue that God might actively bless someone with material wealth even though He knows that they will get greedy with it (i.e., that some evil/sin will ultimately come of it)? Might some even argue that He does, in fact, do this from Scriptural, traditional or other evidence?
I mean, I think the key here is that God presumably knows the future and how doing X or Y will turn out for a person, even before (to us) it happens, whereas we do not know this so, ifw e bless someone in some way, we do not know how they will react, so we are fine ethically with it. The problem comes if God does this, even though He knows how someone will react.
Or, rather, again, does God leave our own reactions up to us? Even though He knows what they will be, He places the responsibility for our sin on us ultimately and perhaps His blessing us is remote enough from the actual sin that would result that God can ethically bless eve someone who might sin with that blessing?
Maybe God is so Loving (?) to us that He permits us still to enjoy the positive blessings of, sya, material wealth, even though He knows that, in whatever way, to whatever extent, we might sin with it?
What do folks think of all this?