Would those baptized by desire go to Purgatory?

For those that have been reborn, which means those for whom the sacrament is fruitful. Some have the baptism of water done without it being fruitful so have not been reborn. The Council of Florence qualifies the canon with “upon those who immediately attain to the kingdom of heaven and the vision of God”.

1263 By Baptism all sins are forgiven, original sin and all personal sins, as well as all punishment for sin.66 In those who have been reborn nothing remains that would impede their entry into the Kingdom of God, neither Adam’s sin, nor personal sin, nor the consequences of sin, the gravest of which is separation from God.

66 Cf. Council of Florence (1439): DS 1316.

1316 The effect of this sacrament is the remission of every sin, original and actual, also of every punishment which is due to the sin itself. Therefore, no satisfaction must be enjoined for past sins upon those who immediately attain to the kingdom of heaven and the vision of God.

No. I’m saying what the Church says: namely, that having received sanctifying grace, he would attain salvation.

Do the “fruits of baptism” include removal of the temporal punishment due to sin? Interesting question. The catechism identifies that this is one of the effects of baptism, but doesn’t explicitly identify it as one of its ‘fruits’.

Jimmy writes "Recent doctrinal development has made clear that it is possible for one to receive baptism of desire by an implicit desire.

I don’t see how he could be any plainer. He talked about receiving baptism of desire by an implicit desire.

Yes. He asserts it. However, he doesn’t cite a doctrinally authoritative document, nor does he substantiate that point. Rather, he proves that justification follows, but he never shows that ‘baptism’ does.

Wouldn’t this imply that Non-Christians who wind up being saved automatically bypass Purgatory? By definition they have at least implicit desire for baptism. That would almost make it seem that there are situations where it’s better not to be Catholic, and we know that can’t be true.

I’m just saying what the Church teaches.

Yes, I know, it somehow it feels “wrong” which is one of the reasons I posted the question in the first place.

This is at the heart of (part of) the discussion here. I’m not convinced that the Church is saying that those who do not know Christ or the Gospel experience the “baptism of desire” (although I recognize the Church’s teaching that they may be saved, by virtue of God’s gratuitous gift of sanctifying grace to them), nor am I convinced that the “baptism of desire” of catechumens necessarily implies the remission of temporal punishment due to sin.

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